Welcome to the NEET Biology Mock Test on Reproductive Health. This test is carefully crafted to encompass key NEET topics, including reproductive health issues and strategies, population control, medical termination of pregnancy, sexually transmitted diseases, and infertility. This mock test will help you assess your understanding, pinpoint areas that need more focus, and build your confidence.
Subtopics Covered
- Reproductive Health: Problems and Strategies
- Population Explosion and Birth Control
- Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
- Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
- Infertility
Reproductive health encompasses the well-being of individuals in their reproductive processes, including the prevention and treatment of reproductive health problems. Understanding these issues is crucial for maintaining overall health and well-being.
Reproductive Health: Problems and Strategies
Question: Which of the following is considered a permanent method of contraception?
- a) Oral contraceptives
- b) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
- c) Tubectomy
- d) Condoms
Explanation: Tubectomy, a surgical procedure, is a permanent method of female contraception.
Question: The concept of family planning primarily focuses on:
- a) Improving maternal health
- b) Limiting the number of children a couple can have
- c) Providing contraceptive options to couples
- d) All of the above
Explanation: Family planning encompasses improving maternal health, limiting the number of children, and providing contraceptive options.
Question: Which of the following strategies can help in reducing maternal mortality?
- a) Early marriage
- b) Delayed pregnancies
- c) Regular prenatal check-ups
- d) Both b and c
Explanation: Delayed pregnancies and regular prenatal check-ups significantly reduce maternal mortality.
Question: Amniocentesis is used to:
- a) Detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus
- b) Terminate pregnancy
- c) Promote fertility
- d) None of the above
Explanation: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus.
Question: Saheli, an oral contraceptive for females, was developed by:
- a) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- b) National Institute of Immunology (NII)
- c) Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI)
- d) None of the above
Explanation: Saheli was developed by the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI).
Population Explosion and Birth Control: Population explosion refers to the rapid increase in the population, which can strain resources and impact overall quality of life. Effective birth control methods are essential in managing population growth and ensuring sustainable development.
Population Explosion and Birth Control:
Question: Which hormone is typically used in emergency contraceptive pills?
- a) Estrogen
- b) Progesterone
- c) Progestin
- d) Both b and c
Explanation: Emergency contraceptive pills commonly contain progestin, a synthetic hormone that mimics progesterone.
Question: One of the major reasons for population explosion in India is:
- a) High birth rate
- b) Improved healthcare facilities
- c) Lower death rate
- d) All of the above
Explanation: High birth rate, improved healthcare, and lower death rates have all contributed to population explosion.
Question: The Copper T device works primarily by:
- a) Releasing hormones to prevent ovulation
- b) Creating a hostile environment for sperm in the uterus
- c) Blocking the fallopian tubes
- d) All of the above
Explanation: Copper T creates a hostile environment for sperm, preventing fertilization.
Question: Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception for:
- a) Males
- b) Females
- c) Both males and females
- d) Neither
Explanation: Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception for males, where the vas deferens is cut and sealed.
Question: Which of the following methods of contraception does not involve hormones?
- a) Birth control pills
- b) Condoms
- c) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
- d) Emergency contraceptives
Explanation: Condoms are a non-hormonal method of contraception.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP): Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is a procedure used to end a pregnancy safely and legally under certain conditions. Understanding the legal and medical aspects of MTP is crucial for reproductive health.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP):
Question: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is legal in India up to:
- a) 8 weeks
- b) 12 weeks
- c) 20 weeks
- d) 24 weeks
Explanation: MTP is legal in India up to 20 weeks under certain conditions.
Question: One of the main purposes of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act is to:
- a) Increase birth rates
- b) Decrease maternal mortality rates
- c) Promote contraceptive use
- d) None of the above
Explanation: The MTP Act aims to decrease maternal mortality by providing safe abortion services.
Question: Which of the following is an indication for MTP?
- a) Risk to the mother’s life
- b) Rape
- c) Contraceptive failure
- d) All of the above
Explanation: MTP is allowed in cases of risk to the mother's life, rape, and contraceptive failure.
Question: Which of the following is not a method of MTP?
- a) Suction aspiration
- b) Dilation and curettage
- c) Copper T insertion
- d) Medication
Explanation: Copper T insertion is a contraceptive method, not a method of MTP.
Question: MTP can be safely conducted by:
- a) Any healthcare provider
- b) Only trained and registered medical practitioners
- c) Midwives
- d) None of the above
Explanation: Only trained and registered medical practitioners are authorized to perform MTPs.
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs): STDs are infections transmitted through sexual contact. Awareness and prevention are key to managing these diseases and maintaining sexual health.
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs):
Question: Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
- a) Gonorrhea
- b) Syphilis
- c) Chlamydia
- d) Herpes
Explanation: Herpes is a viral STD, while the others are bacterial.
Question: HIV/AIDS primarily affects which cells of the immune system?
- a) Red blood cells
- b) Platelets
- c) CD4+ T cells
- d) B cells
Explanation: HIV targets CD4+ T cells, weakening the immune system.
Question: Which STD is known as the “silent infection” due to its asymptomatic nature in many individuals?
- a) Syphilis
- b) Chlamydia
- c) Gonorrhea
- d) Herpes
Explanation: Chlamydia is often called the “silent infection” because many infected individuals exhibit no symptoms.
Question: The causative agent of syphilis is:
- a) Treponema pallidum
- b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- c) Herpes simplex virus
- d) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation: Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Question: The “chancre” is a characteristic symptom of which STD?
- a) Gonorrhea
- b) Syphilis
- c) Herpes
- d) Chlamydia
Explanation: A chancre is a painless ulcer that appears during the primary stage of syphilis.
Infertility: Infertility is the inability to achieve pregnancy after a year of regular, unprotected sexual intercourse. Various treatments and diagnostic tests are available to address infertility issues.
Infertility:
Which hormone deficiency is most likely to cause infertility in males?
- a) Testosterone
- b) Estrogen
- c) Progesterone
- d) Oxytocin
Explanation: Testosterone deficiency can lead to infertility in males.
Question: Which of the following is a common cause of infertility in females?
- a) Endometriosis
- b) Low sperm count
- c) Erectile dysfunction
- d) Testicular torsion
Explanation: Endometriosis is a common cause of infertility in females.
Question: Assisted reproductive technologies (ART) include which of the following?
- a) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
- b) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
- c) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
- d) All of the above
Explanation: ART includes IVF, GIFT, and ZIFT among other techniques.
Question: Which test is often used to assess female ovarian reserve?
- a) Serum progesterone levels
- b) Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) levels
- c) Ultrasound of the uterus
- d) Genetic testing
Explanation: AMH levels are used to assess ovarian reserve.
Question: The term “ICSI” stands for:
- a) Intrauterine sperm injection
- b) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
- c) Intrauterine fertilization
- d) Intraovarian sperm injection
Explanation: ICSI stands for Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection, a technique used in ART.
Question: Semen analysis is used in diagnosing male infertility to:
- a) Evaluate sperm count and motility
- b) Test hormone levels
- c) Check for infections
- d) Determine genetic abnormalities
Explanation: Semen analysis evaluates sperm count, motility, and overall semen quality.
Question: Intrauterine insemination (IUI) is used to:
- a) Directly fertilize eggs in the lab
- b) Insert sperm into the uterus
- c) Remove eggs from the ovaries
- d) None of the above
Explanation: IUI involves placing sperm directly into the uterus to facilitate fertilization.
Question: Which technique involves fertilizing an egg outside the body?
- a) Artificial insemination
- b) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
- c) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
- d) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Explanation: IVF involves fertilizing an egg outside the body and then transferring the embryo to the uterus.
Question: Which of the following is not a typical treatment for female infertility?
- a) Clomiphene citrate
- b) Intrauterine insemination
- c) Hormone replacement therapy
- d) Antifungal medications
Explanation: Antifungal medications are not used for treating female infertility.
Question: The condition where a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus is known as:
- a) Ectopic pregnancy
- b) Endometriosis
- c) Fibroids
- d) Polycystic ovaries
Explanation: An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus.
Question: The most common cause of male infertility is:
- a) Low sperm count
- b) Hormonal imbalances
- c) Genetic disorders
- d) Environmental factors
Explanation: Low sperm count is the most common cause of male infertility.
Question: What is the typical treatment for female infertility caused by blocked fallopian tubes?
- a) Surgery to repair the tubes
- b) Hormonal therapy
- c) IVF
- d) Lifestyle changes
Explanation: Surgery to repair blocked fallopian tubes or IVF is typically used to address this issue.
Question: Which hormone is commonly used in treatments for inducing ovulation in females?
- a) Progesterone
- b) Estrogen
- c) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Explanation: FSH and LH are commonly used to induce ovulation in females.
Question: In male infertility, which of the following is often evaluated first?
- a) Sperm count and quality
- b) Testicular biopsy
- c) Genetic testing
- d) Hormone levels
Explanation: Sperm count and quality are usually evaluated first in male infertility assessments.
Question: Which assisted reproductive technology involves placing the embryo into the fallopian tube?
- a) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
- b) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
- c) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
- d) Artificial insemination
Explanation: GIFT and ZIFT involve placing the embryo or gametes into the fallopian tube.
Question: A common treatment for male infertility due to hormonal imbalance is:
- a) Surgery
- b) Hormone therapy
- c) IVF
- d) Clomiphene citrate
Explanation: Hormone therapy is used to treat hormonal imbalances that affect male fertility.
Question: Infertility treatments involving the use of donor sperm or eggs are referred to as:
- a) Gamete donation
- b) Surrogacy
- c) IVF with donor gametes
- d) None of the above
Explanation: Treatments involving donor sperm or eggs are referred to as IVF with donor gametes.
Question: A condition that results in the absence of menstruation is known as:
- a) Amenorrhea
- b) Dysmenorrhea
- c) Oligomenorrhea
- d) Menorrhagia
Explanation: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to infertility?
- a) Age
- b) Lifestyle factors
- c) Genetic disorders
- d) Adequate nutrition
Explanation: Adequate nutrition is generally not a factor contributing to infertility.
Question: What is the role of luteal phase support in fertility treatments?
- a) To increase sperm production
- b) To support the uterine lining for embryo implantation
- c) To stimulate ovulation
- d) To reduce egg quality
Explanation: Luteal phase support helps maintain the uterine lining for embryo implantation.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a method of assessing ovarian reserve?
- a) Ovarian ultrasound
- b) Serum estrogen levels
- c) Serum progesterone levels
- d) Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) levels
Explanation: Serum progesterone levels are not typically used to assess ovarian reserve.
Question: The presence of multiple cysts on the ovaries is characteristic of:
- a) Endometriosis
- b) PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome)
- c) Fibroids
- d) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation: PCOS is characterized by multiple cysts on the ovaries.
Question: In IVF, what is the purpose of the culture medium?
- a) To support embryo development
- b) To stimulate egg production
- c) To prepare the uterus for implantation
- d) To facilitate sperm motility
Explanation: The culture medium supports embryo development in IVF.
Question:The primary aim of cryopreservation in fertility treatments is to:
- a) Preserve embryos for future use
- b) Enhance sperm motility
- c) Improve egg quality
- d) Diagnose infertility
Explanation: Cryopreservation is used to preserve embryos or gametes for future use.
Question: Which method involves the transfer of a fertilized egg directly into the uterus?
- a) IUI (Intrauterine Insemination)
- b) IVF (In vitro Fertilization)
- c) GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer)
- d) ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection)
Explanation: IVF involves transferring a fertilized egg directly into the uterus.
Question: The use of an egg donor is most often considered when:
- a) The female partner has no eggs
- b) There are male fertility issues
- c) There is a need to prevent genetic disorders
- d) All of the above
Explanation: Egg donation is considered when the female partner has no viable eggs or to prevent genetic disorders.
Question: Which of the following can be an outcome of untreated sexually transmitted diseases?
- a) Infertility
- b) Chronic pain
- c) Increased risk of HIV
- d) All of the above
Explanation: Untreated STDs can lead to infertility, chronic pain, and an increased risk of HIV.
Question: Fertility preservation is commonly used for individuals undergoing:
- a) Chemotherapy
- b) Physical therapy
- c) Routine health checks
- d) Cosmetic procedures
Explanation: Fertility preservation is often used for individuals undergoing chemotherapy, which can affect fertility.
Question: The term used to describe the removal of eggs from the ovaries is:
- a) Aspiration
- b) Cryopreservation
- c) Stimulation
- d) Fertilization
Explanation: Aspiration is the process of removing eggs from the ovaries.
Question: The most common treatment for male infertility caused by a varicocele is:
- a) Surgery
- b) Medication
- c) Hormone therapy
- d) Lifestyle changes
Explanation: Surgery is often the most effective treatment for infertility caused by a varicocele.
Conclusion
We hope this NEET Biology Mock Test on Reproductive Health has provided you with a comprehensive overview of essential concepts and helped you gauge your understanding of the subject. Mastering these topics is crucial for achieving success in your NEET exams and for a well-rounded knowledge of reproductive health.
Thank You Note
Thank you for taking the time to complete this mock test. Your commitment to studying and preparing thoroughly is commendable. We wish you the best of luck in your NEET exams and in all your future endeavors. Keep striving for excellence!
Warm Regards🎉
Copyright @Science Coat
%20(1).png)
.png)
